SkyWest Initial Maneuvers Training (IMT) 1 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• On a max performance takeoff procedure the PF must set thrust within what percent of targeted N1?
• If EFIS magnetic interference is known, which COMPASS setting should be used during takeoff and climb until takeoff is complete?
• FMS programming should be accomplished before which event?
• Why is crosswind component management important during takeoff and landing?
• What does activating NAV mode accomplish during an instrument approach?
• When using the thrust reversers, when does the PF reduce them to idle?
• If an engine fails after V1, what is the recommended action?
• How do you verify aircraft configuration and instrument accuracy during flow checks?
• How should you handle radio failure during approach procedures?
• If the available landing distance is 8,000 feet, touchdown must be within the first how many feet under LAHSO rules?
• What is the minimum visibility value below which it is not authorized to continue an approach?
• CRM is defined as?
• When does the PF conduct the arrival briefing?
• What is the primary purpose of checklists in IMT 1?
• Contingency planning in the takeoff briefing should include which elements?
• If weather falls below approach minima, what action is typically required?
• If the center of gravity is forward, what is the likely effect on stability and stall risk?
• What is the purpose of an engine-out procedure during flight (in cruise or approach)?
• In VFR flight, what do the minima refer to?
• What is the role of a preflight/flow check?
• What is the targeted airspeed from rotation to 1000' AFE?
• On a static takeoff procedure when are the brakes released?
• Where can the LAHSO landing distance / weight information be found?
• What is the purpose of sterile cockpit during approach and landing?
• Which speeds are typically memorized for takeoff?
• Prior to calling "GEAR UP" the PF must _____.
• The "APPROACH LIGHTS CONTINUE" callout can only be made upon reaching the __________ and only as a response to the __________ callout.
• What is the role of the PNF in cross-checking?
• Why is wind shear significant for takeoff and landing?
• When should ATC be notified when the crew has responded to an RA?
• What are the main categories of checklists and how are they used during flight?
• LAHSO minimums depend on equipment availability; which device determines the lower minimums?
• On the PFD, which indication accompanies an active RA?
• What is a typical consequence of ignoring weight and balance in IMT 1 operations?
• What factors drive alternate fuel planning and reserves?
• Regarding gust factor adjustments at 500 ft HAT, which statement is true?
• What information does a TAF provide?
• Which of the following is included in the 1000 ft HAT stabilized approach criteria?
• Precision approaches are ______ when available.
• What is the purpose of assigning cross-check responsibilities in a pre-takeoff briefing?
• Why is scan technique and situational awareness critical in the cockpit?
• Which sequence best describes the standard flight checklist order?
• METARs provide which information?
• When an airport is known to have EFIS magnetic interference on takeoff select _____ on the COMPASS switches for takeoff and climb until the ________ is complete.
• During an engine-out scenario in cruise or approach, what is the recommended action?
• On initial climb with the flaps extended to the takeoff flap setting full maneuvering capability is available at _____.
• Which of the following lists the three elements of a stabilized approach?
• What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for LAHSO (without PAPI/VASI)?
• What is the target airspeed on takeoff until reaching MFRA?
• What is the importance of a consistent flow and cross-check in checklist discipline?
• What is the purpose of anti-ice or de-ice equipment in flight?
• Which item is specifically addressed in an instrument approach briefing regarding vertical navigation?
• What is the required action to correct an EGPWS aural warning when enroute or on initial approach?
• For KMFR night visual approaches, how may crews join the instrument approach course?
• Why should you not allow the airplane to float in ground effect?
• What is the purpose of trim during the approach?
• During an RA maneuver, a warning from which system requires immediate abandonment and execution of the appropriate procedure?
• Why is weight and balance essential in IMT 1?
• What are the consequences of operating outside the CG envelope?
• What is the approximate fuel burn to conduct a missed approach from a point 200' ft above runway and complete a subsequent approach from a 10 NM final?
• Which aircraft family is explicitly mentioned regarding tail strike risk when floating in ground effect?
• What company chart can airport specific EGPWS data be found?
• By 500 ft HAT, what criterion must be met?
• How does weather affect planning and minimums for an approach?
• No approach should be initiated unless the prevailing conditions are ______ and a landing is ______.
• Outline the basic sequence of a go-around.
• A runway reported as "Patchy" contamination is considered contaminated.
• What is the primary purpose of cross-checking in flight deck operations?
• How does CRM support decision-making under high workload?
• Which statement is true regarding APPR or NAV mode usage?
• When an RA is received what are the actions of the PM?
• In case of unreliable airspeed, standby instruments are used to:
• What is the difference between altitude and flight level?
• For takeoff in the example weather, which anti-ice system combination is required?
• What does TEM stand for?
• After reaching MFRA, what is the target airspeed?
• Which speed is not part of the standard missed-approach speed sequence?
• In a METAR wind group, what does G20 indicate?
• NO turns shall be commenced below 1000' above field elevation (AFE) when takeoff weather is less than ______________ unless a Special Departure Procedure prescribes otherwise or the assigned instrument departure procedure specifically requires a turn before reaching 1000' AGL.
• Which item is NOT a requirement for stabilization by 1000 ft HAT?
• What does the acronym TOGA stand for in the context of a go-around?
• If flaps were extended, what flap position is called for on the escape maneuver?
• Which factor is NOT listed as driving alternate fuel planning and reserves?
• The "APPROACH LIGHTS CONTINUE" callout is allowed only when reaching which conditions?
• Differentiate between normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures.
• How should you communicate with ATC to ensure clear instructions and separation?
• What does APPR mode signify during an instrument approach?
• Rudder control is effective to approximately _____ knots.
• During the EGPWS Escape Maneuver, which pilot verifies that the flight spoilers are retracted?
• To initiate a missed approach profile the PF states ______ when conducting instrument approach.
• At minimums, what should the PF respond when the PM calls MISSED APPROACH?
• What is the required action to correct an EGPWS aural warning when on final approach in IMC below 500' AGL?
• What is Vmc and why is it critical during takeoff?
• Under LAHSO, which distance determines the maximum allowed touchdown point?
• How is an RA depicted on the MFD? How is depicted on the PFD?
• What must the aircraft do regarding the instrument approach course until maneuvering to land during a KMFR night visual approach?
• If the reported weather on takeoff was 00000KT 3/4SM BR OVC003 08/07 A29.92 what anti-ice systems must be selected on for takeoff?
• How should crews respond to degraded avionics or instrumentation in IMT 1?
• When can the RUNWAY IN SIGHT callout be made?
• How does center of gravity location affect stall behavior?
• What is the maximum N1 to be considered idle thrust with the thrust reversers deployed?
• What actions should you take when you suspect an unreliable airspeed indication?
• Pressing the TOGA button sets the command bar to what degree of pitch up?
• What is the minimum speed that may be flown until flap retraction altitude?
• On a rolling takeoff procedure the PF must set thrust within what percent of targeted N1?
• Which elements may be missing in a weather report?
• When a TA is received what are the actions of the PM?
• NOTAMs are accessible on Flight Release and SkyWest Online. Which platform is also listed as an access point?
• Which statement reflects guidance for ATC notification during a TCAS RA?
• What is the typical cockpit flow at engine start and taxi?
• Landing distance data are based on crossing the beginning of the available landing distance at 50' at which speed?
• After an RA, what indicates it is safe to resume the assigned altitude?
• What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for LAHSO (with PAPI/VASI)?
• Which statement best distinguishes IFR from VFR in terms of flight planning and operations?
• What minimum ceiling and visibility are required to permit turns before reaching 1000' AGL during takeoff?
• During unreliable airspeed, alternate sources should include:
• When an RA is received what are the actions of the PF?
• Thrust reversers are more effective at ______ speeds.
• What is the target pitch attitude for the EGPWS Escape Maneuver?
• How does icing affect engine and wing performance, and how is it mitigated?
• Why is the highest threat verbalized at the end of the briefing?
• If weather does not meet minima, what is the recommended action?
• When is the landing gear selected down during a CAT II ILS approach?
• Which item should be included in an instrument approach briefing regarding the chart itself?
• Under what condition may a precision approach continue if the reported visibility drops below minimums?
• What is the required action to correct an EGPWS aural warning when on final approach in VMC?
• The statement 'Thrust reversers are more effective at high speeds' is generally considered:
• During landing, plan to touchdown in the __________.
• Which checklist must be completed for the approach to be considered fully configured for landing?
• Which statement best describes Vmc?
• Which pilot may call for a go-around/missed approach?
• What is the primary purpose of the sterile cockpit concept during critical flight phases in SkyWest IMT training?
• Which item covers the planned descent transition from arrival to final approach segment?
• What triggers a TCAS RA?
• When a TA is received what are the actions of the PF?
• Which statement best describes the initial target pitch in a missed approach profile?
• Which document contains official engine-out procedures to follow during abnormal takeoff?
• This KMFR night visual approach applies to which runways?
• Thrust reversers are more effective at ______ speeds.
• Which items must be briefed on an instrument approach briefing?
• What is a holding pattern and when is it used?
• Upon receiving the CLEAR OF CONFLICT aural message, what action should the crew take?
• The 60 kt speed is relevant to reversing thrust; is this speed a typical value used for idle thrust transition?
• Where must the touchdown be made for LAHSO?
• Which action is required prior to calling GEAR UP in the takeoff procedure?
• How should crews respond to degraded avionics when standby instruments are not available?
• For KMFR at night, can crews request a visual approach clearance?
• How is altimeter setting selected and what does it influence?
• Which item should be included in a pilot/crew briefing for IMT 1 takeoff?
• What does the CG envelope describe in planning?
• In a holding pattern, pilots typically adhere to:
• During an instrument approach, what callout does the PF state to initiate a missed approach?
• During an RA, which of the following does the PF verify and execute?
• What is the initial target pitch when initiating a missed approach profile?
• What is the targeted speed to be flown until flap retraction altitude?
• How do performance calculations affect takeoff planning?
• What should a pre-takeoff briefing cover regarding contingencies?
• To initiate a missed approach profile the PF states ______ when conducting visual approach.
• What is the targeted speed to be flown after flap retraction altitude?
• By 1000 ft HAT, which of the following describes stabilized approach criteria?
• Under what conditions should you update the altimeter setting to maintain accurate altitude?
• Which statement best describes TEM as a concept for flight safety?
• On a visual approach, initiating a go-around triggers which pilot callout?
• On the MFD, how is a Resolution Advisory depicted?
• When is a missed approach initiated and what is its purpose?
• How do you maintain situational awareness when automation becomes unreliable?
• A typical TEM example in flight is:
• The primary objective of cross-checking among crew is to:
• Performance values take into account the threshold is crossed at ____ ft. at ____.
• Why is early threat identification important in TEM?
• What is the objective of an engine-out procedure during takeoff?
• What is the purpose of the sterile cockpit rule during approach vs departure?
• When operating in the terminal area what range shall be selected on the MFD?
• Which item in an instrument approach briefing covers the minimums for descent and landing?
• Which item is NOT part of the 1000 ft HAT stabilized approach criteria?
• If corrections are not immediately apparent or effective and warnings continue, what action should be taken?